106 MCQ with answers on daily current affairs for social work students (25 November 2023)

Q1: What was the total penalty amount imposed by the Reserve Bank of India on Citibank, Bank of Baroda, and Indian Overseas Bank?

a) ₹5 crore

b) ₹9.34 crore

c) ₹10.34 crore

d) ₹15 crore

Answer: c) ₹10.34 crore

Q2: Why did Citibank face a penalty of ₹5 crore?

a) Violation of interest rate regulations

b) Non-compliance with operational guidelines, risk management, and outsourcing code of conduct

c) Lack of awareness about the depositor education fund scheme

d) Failure to adhere to 'loans and advances – statutory and other restrictions' directives

Answer: b) Non-compliance with operational guidelines, risk management, and outsourcing code of conduct

Q3: What regulatory breach led to the penalty imposed on Indian Overseas Bank?

a) Violation of interest rate regulations

b) Non-compliance with specific directions on 'loans and advances – statutory and other restrictions'

c) Lack of awareness about the depositor education fund scheme

d) Failure to adhere to outsourcing code of conduct

Answer: b) Non-compliance with specific directions on 'loans and advances – statutory and other restrictions'

Q4: Why did Bank of Baroda face a penalty of ₹4.34 crore?

a) Violation of interest rate regulations

b) Non-compliance with specific directions on 'loans and advances – statutory and other restrictions'

c) Lack of awareness about the depositor education fund scheme

d) Failure to adhere to outsourcing code of conduct

Answer: b) Non-compliance with regulations concerning 'loans and advances – statutory and other restrictions' and the 'Reserve Bank of India (interest rate on deposits) directions, 2016.'

Q5: How many cooperative banks were penalized by the RBI for deficiencies in compliance?

a) Two

b) Four

c) Five

d) Six

Answer: c) Five

Q6: What message do these penalties convey to financial institutions?

a) Compliance standards can be overlooked for smaller institutions.

b) Regulatory adherence is crucial to maintaining the integrity of the banking system.

c) Only major players in the banking sector are subject to penalties.

d) RBI focuses solely on interest rate regulations.

Answer: b) Regulatory adherence is crucial to maintaining the integrity of the banking system.

Q7: What date did the RBI extend its regulatory actions to cooperative banks?

a) 24 November

b) 23 November

c) 25 November

d) 22 November

Answer: b) 23 November

Q8: What is the objective of the "Ayurveda Gyan Naipunya Initiative" (AGNI) introduced by the Central Council for Research in Ayurveda Sciences (CCRAS)?

a) To promote traditional Ayurvedic medicine only

b) To facilitate the integration of modern scientific rigor with ancient Ayurvedic wisdom

c) To discourage Ayurveda practitioners from contributing innovative practices

d) To establish a platform for competition among Ayurveda professionals

Answer: b) To facilitate the integration of modern scientific rigor with ancient Ayurvedic wisdom

Q9: What does AGNI aim to instill among Ayurveda professionals?

a) A culture of evidence-based practice

b) A culture of traditional practices

c) A competitive spirit in the field

d) A disregard for scientific validation

Answer: a) A culture of evidence-based practice

Q10: What is one of the key objectives of AGNI regarding therapeutic regimens?

a) Keeping therapeutic regimens confidential

b) Systematically documenting and publishing successful therapeutic regimens

c) Exclusively relying on traditional practices

d) Ignoring educational and academic purposes

Answer: b) Systematically documenting and publishing successful therapeutic regimens

Q11: What role does CCRAS play in the implementation and application process of AGNI?

a) Actively participating in the competition

b) Overseeing the documentation and publication of reported medical practices

c) Disregarding the reported practices

d) Encouraging a competitive atmosphere

Answer: b) Overseeing the documentation and publication of reported medical practices

Q12: What is the deadline for Ayurveda practitioners to submit their Expression of Interest (EOI) for participation in AGNI?

a) November 30, 2023

b) December 15, 2023

c) December 31, 2023

d) January 15, 2024

Answer: b) December 15, 2023

Q13: How does AGNI plan to bring pragmatic Ayurveda practices into mainstream medical practices?

a) Ignoring collaboration with practitioners and relevant institutes

b) Validating practices through rigorous research methodologies

c) Discouraging capacity building

d) Avoiding documentation of therapeutic regimens

Answer: b) Validating practices through rigorous research methodologiesQ14: What is the name of the recently discovered ultra-high-energy cosmic ray mentioned in the article?

a) Oh-My-God particle

b) Solar energetic particle

c) Amaterasu

d) Victor Hess particle

Answer: c) Amaterasu

Q14: What is the estimated energy level of the recently discovered cosmic ray, Amaterasu?

a) 100 EeV

b) 200 EeV

c) 240 EeV

d) 300 EeV

Answer: c) 240 EeV

Q15: How does the energy level of the recent cosmic ray, Amaterasu, compare to the Oh-My-God particle discovered in 1991?

a) Amaterasu has higher energy

b) Both have the same energy

c) Oh-My-God particle has higher energy

d) Energy levels cannot be compared

Answer: b) Both have the same energy

Q16: What is the primary form of cosmic rays mentioned in the article?

a) Neutrons

b) Protons

c) Electrons

d) Photons

Answer: b) Protons

Q17: What technological advancement is credited with contributing to the understanding of cosmic rays?

a) High-altitude balloon flights

b) Wulf electrometers

c) Fermi Space Telescope

d) Victor Hess's discovery

Answer: c) Fermi Space Telescope

Q18: What raises questions about the origin of the recent cosmic ray, Amaterasu?

a) Known physics principles

b) Magnetic fields within the Milky Way Galaxy

c) Unknown physics principles

d) Earth's protective magnetosphere

Answer: c) Unknown physics principles

Q19: What did Victor Hess discover in 1912, leading to his Nobel Prize in Physics in 1936?

a) Solar energetic particles

b) Galactic Cosmic Rays (GCRs)

c) Cosmic ray nuclei

d) The existence of cosmic rays

Answer: d) The existence of cosmic rays

Q20: What is the primary objective of the Joint Military Exercise SURYA KIRAN?

a) Bilateral trade promotion

b) Enhancing interoperability in specific military domains

c) Cultural exchange programs

d) Diplomatic negotiations

Answer: b) Enhancing interoperability in specific military domains

Q21: Where is the 17th edition of SURYA KIRAN taking place?

a) Kathmandu, Nepal

b) Pithoragarh, Uttarakhand, India

c) New Delhi, India

d) Lumbini, Nepal

Answer: b) Pithoragarh, Uttarakhand, India

Q22: How often does the SURYA KIRAN exercise alternate between India and Nepal?

a) Annually

b) Biannually

c) Quarterly

d) Every five years

Answer: a) Annually

Q24: What is the focus of the SURYA KIRAN exercise in terms of military operations?

a) Desert warfare

b) Jungle warfare, counter-terrorism in mountainous terrain, and HADR operations

c) Naval operations

d) Cybersecurity operations

Answer: b) Jungle warfare, counter-terrorism in mountainous terrain, and HADR operations

Q25: Which battalion is representing the Nepal Army in the 17th edition of SURYA KIRAN?

a) Tara Dal Battalion

b) KUMAON Regiment

c) Pithoragarh Battalion

d) Everest Brigade

Answer: a) Tara Dal Battalion

Q26: What modern aspect does SURYA KIRAN emphasize in its activities?

a) Horse-mounted cavalry techniques

b) Drone deployment and counter-drone measures

c) Archery skills

d) Morse code communication

Answer: b) Drone deployment and counter-drone measures

Q27: Besides military cooperation, what does SURYA KIRAN aim to achieve through cultural exchange?

a) Economic partnerships

b) Political alliances

c) A deeper understanding of operational procedures

d) Social media campaigns

Answer: c) A deeper understanding of operational procedures

Q28: What does SURYA KIRAN symbolize between India and Nepal?

a) Economic rivalry

b) Trust, friendship, and common cultural linkages

c) Political conflicts

d) Military dominance

Answer: b) Trust, friendship, and common cultural linkages

Q29: In which month is the 17th edition of SURYA KIRAN scheduled to take place?

a) October

b) November

c) December

d) January

Answer: b) November

Q30: What role does SURYA KIRAN play beyond military capabilities enhancement?

a) Environmental conservation

b) Economic development

c) Diplomatic bridge fostering bilateral relations

d) Space exploration

Answer: c) Diplomatic bridge fostering bilateral relationsQ31: What is the closing value of the Indian rupee against the US dollar mentioned in the article?

a) 83.34

b) 83.38

c) 83.22

d) 84.00

Answer: b) 83.38

Q32: What contributed to the decline of the Indian rupee against the US dollar?

a) Increased demand for rupees from oil companies

b) Reduced intervention by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI)

c) Decreased dollar demand from oil companies

d) Appreciation of the US dollar

Answer: a) Increased demand for rupees from oil companies

Q33: How often does the SURYA KIRAN exercise take place between India and Nepal?

a) Quarterly

b) Annually

c) Biannually

d) Once in five years

Answer: b) Annually

Q34: What is the primary focus of the SURYA KIRAN exercise in terms of military operations?

a) Desert warfare

b) Jungle warfare, counter-terrorism in mountainous terrain, and HADR operations

c) Naval operations

d) Cybersecurity operations

Answer: b) Jungle warfare, counter-terrorism in mountainous terrain, and HADR operations

Q35: What is the primary objective of the Indian rupee hitting a new low against the US dollar?

a) To boost exports

b) To attract foreign investments

c) To stabilize the forex market

d) To encourage imports

Answer: c) To stabilize the forex market

Q36: What is the yearly depreciation of the Indian rupee in 2023 compared to 2022?

a) 0.8%

b) 8%

c) 10%

d) 15%

Answer: a) 0.8%

Q37: What is the role of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) in managing the forex market according to the article?

a) To increase volatility

b) To promote currency depreciation

c) To actively intervene and stabilize the rupee

d) To reduce foreign exchange reserves

Answer: c) To actively intervene and stabilize the rupee

Q38: In terms of forex reserves, how many months of imports are covered by India's reserve kitty?

a) 6 months

b) 8 months

c) 10 months

d) 12 months

Answer: c) 10 months

Q39: What is the primary emphasis of the SURYA KIRAN exercise in terms of modern aspects?

a) Archery skills

b) Drone deployment and counter-drone measures

c) Morse code communication

d) Horse-mounted cavalry techniques

Answer: b) Drone deployment and counter-drone measures

Q40: In which region did most Asian currencies, including the Indian rupee, experience depreciation, according to the article?

a) North America

b) Europe

c) Asia

d) Africa

Answer: c) AsiaQ41: What is the primary focus of the Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) signed between India and the European Union (EU)?

a) Agricultural collaboration

b) Semiconductor industry collaboration

c) Space exploration

d) Pharmaceutical research

Answer: b) Semiconductor industry collaboration

Q42: What does the MoU between India and the EU emphasize regarding research, development, and innovation?

a) Collaboration with non-European countries

b) Collaboration exclusively with businesses

c) Collaboration among universities, research organizations, and businesses

d) Collaboration with the automotive industry

Answer: c) Collaboration among universities, research organizations, and businesses

Q43: Why is the semiconductor industry considered to have gained strategic significance, especially in the post-COVID era?

a) Due to increased demand for agricultural products

b) Because of its role in driving the digital world

c) Because of its impact on the textile industry

d) Due to advancements in space technology

Answer: b) Because of its role in driving the digital world

Q44: What is a key aspect of the MoU related to workforce development in the semiconductor industry?

a) Promotion of direct investments only

b) Fostering skills and talent development

c) Collaboration exclusively through workshops

d) Ignoring the aspect of workforce development

Answer: b) Fostering skills and talent development

Q45: What is the role of the Trade and Technology Council in the collaboration between India and the EU?

a) To regulate global trade

b) To meet in 2024 and signify commitment to continued collaboration

c) To focus exclusively on technology-related issues

d) To supervise workforce development initiatives

Answer: b) To meet in 2024 and signify a commitment to continued collaboration

Q46: In the MoU, what does the commitment to ensuring a level playing field in the semiconductor sector involve?

a) Restricting information sharing

b) Ignoring public subsidies

c) Sharing information on granted public subsidies

d) Promoting unfair competition

Answer: c) Sharing information on granted public subsidies

Q47: What is the timeline mentioned in the article for the Trade and Technology Council's meeting in India?

a) Late 2023

b) Mid-2024

c) Early 2024

d) Not mentioned in the article

Answer: c) Early 2024

Q48: What does the MoU between India and the European Union aim to contribute to the global semiconductor ecosystem?

a) To reduce collaboration in the semiconductor industry

b) To maintain a competitive semiconductor industry landscape

c) To increase dependence on China-dominated supply chains

d) To restrict innovation in the digital world

Answer: b) To maintain a competitive semiconductor industry landscape

Q49: How many countries are part of the European Union, as mentioned in the article?

a) 15

b) 20

c) 27

d) 30

Answer: c) 27

Q50: What is the significance of the MoU in terms of India's dependence on supply chains?

a) It increases dependence on China-dominated supply chains.

b) It has no impact on supply chain dynamics.

c) It aligns with the global trend of diversifying supply chains, especially in the Indo-Pacific region.

d) It decreases collaboration with non-European countries.

Answer: c) It aligns with the global trend of diversifying supply chains, especially in the Indo-Pacific region.Q51: In which year is India set to take the helm as the chairman of the International Sugar Organisation (ISO)?

a) 2022

b) 2023

c) 2024

d) 2025

Answer: c) 2024

Q52: What is the focus of India's chairmanship in the International Sugar Organisation for 2024?

a) Expansion of sugar production only

b) Adoption of sustainable practices in sugarcane cultivation and sugar production

c) Strict regulations on member countries

d) Reduction of sugar production globally

Answer: b) Adoption of sustainable practices in sugarcane cultivation and sugar production

Q53: What percentage of global sugar consumption does India contribute?

a) 5%

b) 10%

c) 15%

d) 20%

Answer: c) 15%

Q54: Which country leads in the western hemisphere for the sugar market?

a) India

b) China

c) Brazil

d) United States

Answer: c) Brazil

Q55: What is India's position in the world in terms of ethanol production?

a) Second-largest

b) Third-largest

c) Fourth-largest

d) Fifth-largest

Answer: b) Third-largest

Q56: What is India's commitment to green energy in the context of ethanol production?

a) It has decreased ethanol blending percentage.

b) It is importing more fossil fuels.

c) It has increased ethanol blending percentage and reduced fossil fuel imports.

d) It is not involved in ethanol production.

Answer: c) It has increased ethanol blending percentage and reduced fossil fuel imports.

Q57: What percentage of cane dues for the last season (2022-23) has been paid to farmers, according to the information?

a) 90%

b) 98%

c) 99%

d) 100%

Answer: b) 98%

Q58: When was the International Sugar Organisation founded?

a) 1968

b) 1978

c) 1988

d) 1998

Answer: a) 1968

Q59: Where is the headquarters of the International Sugar Organisation located?

a) New York, USA

b) Paris, France

c) London, United Kingdom

d) Geneva, Switzerland

Answer: c) London, United Kingdom

Q60: What is the percentage increase in domestic sugar retail prices in India compared to the previous year, as mentioned in the information?

a) 10%

b) 20%

c) 30%

d) 5%

Answer: d) 5%Q61: Where did the world’s largest iceberg, A23a, originate from?

a) East Antarctica’s Filchner-Ronne Ice Shelf

b) West Antarctica’s Filchner-Ronne Ice Shelf

c) The Antarctic Peninsula

d) Arctic Ice Shelf

Answer: b) West Antarctica’s Filchner-Ronne Ice Shelf

Q62: How long was iceberg A23a largely stationary before its recent movement?

a) One decade

b) Two decades

c) Three decades

d) Four decades

Answer: c) Three decades

Q63: What is the approximate area covered by the colossal iceberg A23a?

a) 2,000 square km

b) 3,000 square km

c) 4,000 square km

d) 5,000 square km

Answer: c) 4,000 square km

Q64: What is the potential course for iceberg A23a as it gains momentum?

a) Arctic Ocean

b) Antarctic Circumpolar Current

c) Indian Ocean

d) North Atlantic Drift

Answer: b) Antarctic Circumpolar Current

Q65: Why does glaciologist Oliver Marsh suggest A23a may have started moving?

a) It gained extra buoyancy due to increased thickness.

b) It melted significantly.

c) It collided with another iceberg.

d) It became grounded on the ocean floor.

Answer: a) It gained extra buoyancy due to increased thickness.

Q66: What potential threat does iceberg A23a pose to South Georgia Island?

a) Increased tourism

b) Disruption of shipping routes

c) Endangering marine life and ecosystems

d) Rise in sea levels

Answer: c) Endangering marine life and ecosystems

Q67: What happened to another giant iceberg, A68, in 2020?

a) It collided with South Georgia Island.

b) It grounded in the Southern Ocean.

c) It broke up into smaller pieces.

d) It remained stationary for decades.

Answer: c) It broke up into smaller pieces.

Q68: What is the potential impact of iceberg A23a on shipping routes?

a) No impact

b) Decreased traffic

c) Increased safety

d) Concerns and the need for monitoring

Answer: d) Concerns and the need for monitoring

Q69: In a changing climate, what behavior of massive icebergs emphasizes the need for continued monitoring and research?

a) Decreased movement

b) Predictable patterns

c) Dynamic and unpredictable nature

d) Smaller sizes

Answer: c) Dynamic and unpredictable nature

Q70: Where could iceberg A23a potentially reach if it persists in warmer waters?

a) North Pole

b) South America

c) South Africa

d) Australia

Answer: c) South Africa

Q71: Why did the Afghanistan embassy in New Delhi officially announce its permanent closure?

a) Internal conflict

b) Diplomats switching allegiance to the Taliban

c) Broader changes in policy and interests, facing challenges in maintaining normal diplomatic operations

d) Favorable change in the Indian government’s stance

Answer: c) Broader changes in policy and interests, facing challenges in maintaining normal diplomatic operations

Q72: How does the embassy characterize the closure, clarifying that it is not a result of diplomats switching allegiance to the Taliban?

a) Internal conflict

b) Broader changes in policy

c) Lack of resources

d) Favorable change in the Indian government’s stance

Answer: b) Broader changes in policy

Q73: What does the embassy express gratitude for in its announcement of the closure?

a) Favorable change in the Indian government’s stance

b) Afghan citizens’ understanding and support

c) Broader changes in policy

d) Internal conflict resolution

Answer: b) Afghan citizens’ understanding and support

Q74: According to the embassy, what has significantly declined over the past two years and three months in India?

a) Indian government’s stance

b) Internal conflict

c) Afghan community

d) Diplomatic operations

Answer: c) Afghan community

Q75: What is the embassy’s commitment based on, ensuring fair treatment to the Afghan community?

a) Lack of resources

b) Internal conflict resolution

c) Transparency and accountability

d) Favorable change in the Indian government’s stance

Answer: c) Transparency and accountability

Q76: To whom did the Afghanistan embassy hand over the mission after its closure?

a) Taliban diplomats

b) United Nations

c) NATO

d) Indian government

Answer: d) Indian government

Q77: When did the embassy initially announce the closure of its operations?

a) September 30

b) November 1

c) August 2021

d) November 30

Answer: b) November 1

Q78: What was the reason initially cited by the embassy for the closure of its operations on November 1?

a) Internal conflict

b) Diplomats switching allegiance to the Taliban

c) Lack of resources and failure to meet Afghanistan’s interests by the Taliban regime

d) Favorable change in the Indian government’s stance

Answer: c) Lack of resources and failure to meet Afghanistan’s interests by the Taliban regime

Q79: When is the Hornbill Festival 2023 scheduled to occur?

a) December 1 to December 5, 2023

b) December 5 to December 15, 2023

c) December 1 to December 10, 2023

d) December 10 to December 20, 2023

Answer: c) December 1 to December 10, 2023

Q80: What does the Hornbill Festival symbolize in Naga folklore?

a) Fertility

b) Fidelity, beauty, and grace

c) Wisdom

d) Strength

Answer: b) Fidelity, beauty, and grace

Q81: Where is the Hornbill Festival celebrated?

a) Kohima, Nagaland

b) Kisama, Nagaland

c) Imphal, Manipur

d) Aizawl, Mizoram

Answer: b) Kisama, Nagaland

Q82: What is the significance of the hornbill in Naga folklore?

a) Symbol of wisdom

b) Emblem of strength

c) Represents fertility

d) Embodies fidelity, beauty, and grace

Answer: d) Embodies fidelity, beauty, and grace

Q83: What is highlighted in the festival calendar of the Hornbill Festival 2023?

a) Astrological predictions

b) Sporting events

c) Events such as exhibitions, food festivals, and dance competitions

d) Political speeches

Answer: c) Events such as exhibitions, food festivals, and dance competitions

Q84: What is being revived as an integral part of the Hornbill Festival, according to Nagaland Tourism's social media post?

a) Traditional cuisine

b) Traditional attire

c) Morungs (essential cultural centers)

d) Tribal rituals

Answer: c) Morungs (essential cultural centers)

Q85: Which day marks the beginning of the Hornbill Festival, aligning with the festival's kickoff on December 1?

a) Republic Day

b) Independence Day

c) Nagaland Statehood Day

d) International Women's Day

Answer: c) Nagaland Statehood Day

Q86: How many visitors are officials anticipating for the Hornbill Festival in 2023?

a) 50,000

b) 100,000

c) 150,000

d) More than two lakh (200,000)**

Answer: d) More than two lakh (200,000)

Q87: When is the International Day for the Elimination of Violence Against Women observed, and what is its significance?

a) December 1; Raising awareness about environmental issues

b) November 25; Raising awareness and addressing the global issue of violence faced by women

c) March 8; Celebrating International Women's Day

d) October 31; Promoting awareness about breast cancer

Answer: b) November 25; Raising awareness and addressing the global issue of violence faced by women

Q88: What historic event led to the official designation of November 25 as the International Day for the Elimination of Violence Against Women?

a) Adoption of the Sustainable Development Goals

b) Signing of the Kyoto Protocol

c) Adoption of the Declaration on the Elimination of Violence against Women by the UN General Assembly

d) Establishment of the United Nations

Answer: c) Adoption of the Declaration on the Elimination of Violence against Women by the UN General Assembly

Q89: What is the global theme for the 16 Days of Activism against Gender-based Violence in 2023, and what does it emphasize?

a) "Silence No More"; Encouraging victims to speak up

b) "End the Violence"; Promoting peace globally

c) "UNITE! Invest to prevent violence against women and girls"; Emphasizing proactive approaches

d) "Equality Now"; Advocating for gender equality

Answer: c) "UNITE! Invest to prevent violence against women and girls"; Emphasizing proactive approaches

Q90: According to the UN’s Declaration on the Elimination of Violence Against Women, how is violence against women and girls defined?

a) Any form of discrimination

b) Any gender-based violence leading to physical, sexual, or psychological harm

c) Political violence against women

d) Economic exploitation of women

Answer: b) Any gender-based violence leading to physical, sexual, or psychological harm

Q91: Why is addressing violence against women considered urgent, and what are some of its consequences?

a) It's a political agenda; Consequences are minimal

b) Urgency due to global events; Consequences mainly economic

c) Urgent due to unreported cases driven by impunity, silence, stigma, and shame; Consequences extend to psychological, sexual, and reproductive health

d) Addressing violence is not urgent; Consequences are overstated

Answer: c) Urgent due to unreported cases driven by impunity, silence, stigma, and shame; Consequences extend to psychological, sexual, and reproductive health

Q92: Which groups are particularly vulnerable to gender-based violence, and why is it crucial to focus on their protection?

a) Only women in urban areas; Focus is essential for political reasons

b) Vulnerable groups include young girls, older women, those identifying as LGBTQ+, migrants, refugees, indigenous women, ethnic minorities, women and girls with disabilities, and those living with HIV; Focusing on their protection is crucial as the promise of the Sustainable Development Goals to “leave no one behind” remains unfulfilled without eradicating violence against women and girls.

c) Only women in certain professions; Focusing on their protection is not crucial

d) Vulnerable groups are not clearly defined; Protection efforts are irrelevant

Answer: b) Vulnerable groups include young girls, older women, those identifying as LGBTQ+, migrants, refugees, indigenous women, ethnic minorities, women and girls with disabilities, and those living with HIV; Focusing on their protection is crucial as the promise of the Sustainable Development Goals to “leave no one behind” remains unfulfilled without eradicating violence against women and girls.

Q93: In the recent development, which company has joined forces with the Survey of India (SoI) for the creation of a three-dimensional (3D) digital twin-mapping program in India?

a) Google Maps

b) Genesys International

c) National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA)

d) OpenStreetMap

Answer: b) Genesys International

Q94: What is the primary goal of the partnership between the Survey of India (SoI) and Genesys International?

a) Launching a satellite for remote sensing

b) Developing digital twins of major cities and towns across India

c) Creating a space exploration program

d) Establishing a global positioning system

Answer: b) Developing digital twins of major cities and towns across India

Q95: What is the working mechanism of the partnership in creating digital twins?

a) Virtual simulations of physical entities

b) Integration of CORS data to mirror the dynamic urban landscape with precision

c) Real-time monitoring of physical objects

d) 3D printing of urban landscapes

Answer: b) Integration of CORS data to mirror the dynamic urban landscape with precision

Q96: What are digital twins in the context of geospatial mapping?

a) Physical replicas of urban landscapes

b) Virtual models of physical objects or systems incorporating data, simulations, and real-time information

c) Printed 3D models of cities

d) High-resolution satellite images of towns and cities

Answer: b) Virtual models of physical objects or systems incorporating data, simulations, and real-time information

Q97: How does Genesys plan to license its geospatial data products in the collaboration?

a) Open-source access

b) Subscription-based model

c) Government use only

d) "Content-as-a-Service" model

Answer: d) "Content-as-a-Service" model

Q98: What initiative will be introduced as part of the collaboration, utilizing high-precision 3D data, Digital Terrain Models (DTM), Digital Surface Models (DSM), and ortho imagery?

a) Geospatial Revolution

b) Digital Mapping Initiative

c) India Map Stack initiative

d) Urban Planning Challenge

Answer: c) India Map Stack initiative

Q99: Where is the headquarters of the Survey of India (SoI) located?

a) New Delhi, India

b) Mumbai, Maharashtra

c) Dehradun, Uttarakhand

d) Kolkata, West Bengal

Answer: c) Dehradun, Uttarakhand

Q100: When was the Survey of India (SoI) established?

a) 1857

b) 1767

c) 1947

d) 1965

Answer: b) 1767Q100: Which organization recently obtained approval from India’s space regulator, IN-SPACe, to initiate Eutelsat OneWeb’s commercial satellite broadband services in India?

a) SpaceX

b) OneWeb India

c) NASA

d) ISRO

Answer: b) OneWeb India

Q101: What is the primary goal of OneWeb India's commercial satellite broadband services in India?

a) Establishing space tourism

b) Achieving India’s goal of universal internet connectivity

c) Launching lunar exploration missions

d) Facilitating deep-space communication

Answer: b) Achieving India’s goal of universal internet connectivity

Q102: In addition to the general approval for commercial services, where has Eutelsat OneWeb secured in-principle approval to establish and operate gateways?

a) Uttar Pradesh and Bihar

b) Karnataka and Telangana

c) Gujarat and Tamil Nadu

d) Maharashtra and Rajasthan

Answer: c) Gujarat and Tamil Nadu

Q103: What is the strategic importance of the gateways established by Eutelsat OneWeb in Gujarat and Tamil Nadu?

a) Providing interplanetary communication

b) Ensuring high-speed, low-latency internet connectivity

c) Enabling deep space exploration

d) Facilitating communication with extraterrestrial life

Answer: b) Ensuring high-speed, low-latency internet connectivity

Q104: What is the key factor determining the commencement of Eutelsat OneWeb’s commercial services in India?

a) Weather conditions

b) Government’s allocation of satellite spectrum

c) Availability of skilled personnel

d) Funding from private investors

Answer: b) Government’s allocation of satellite spectrum

Q105: When was Eutelsat OneWeb founded, and who is its founder?

a) 2005, Elon Musk

b) 2012, Greg Wyler

c) 1998, Mark Zuckerberg

d) 2015, Jeff Bezos

Answer: b) 2012, Greg Wyler

Q106: Who is the Chairman of Bharti Group and Co-Chair of the board of directors of Eutelsat Group?

a) Ratan Tata

b) Anil Ambani

c) Sunil Bharti Mittal

d) Mukesh Ambani

Answer: c) Sunil Bharti Mittal